This man says he bought a house for me and I went ahead and moved in. I agreed verbally that I would pay him house payments at the sum of $1260.00 a month and did so for the first year. Now that I have aquired equity in the house, he has changed it to rent. He said that he would buy the house and once I got my credit straight I would go to a bank and they would pay him in full and I would start paying a mortgage to the bank. Now he has put it under a rental company and expects me to pay rent when I have been paying house payments. How can he do this and is it legal. This is a verbal agreement and there is no paperwork.
Thank you
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