To make a long story short, I made the mistake of trusting my son, his wife and her parents to continue making the payments if I bought their house to keep it from foreclosure. All I actually accomplished was to keep a foreclosure off their credit record. Yes, I'm dumb. But the problem comes from Wilshire not foreclosing on the property even after two years of no payments being sent to them. I have kept all my other obligations associated with the property (except taxes, they have been paying them) current. So what's the deal?
We went throught the loan mod process three times, and when they sent their property management team there to process the property, they disconnected the main water line and flooded the basement. Of course they won't admit to the damage and they won't fix it. I can't afford a lawyer to go after blatant liers without absolute proof they did this. (they never informed me they would be taking over the property, breaking / replacing the locks and assuming control over who accesses the property). That was when I stopped paying them. Two years ago.
The second mortgage, the utilities, the association fees, the insurance, everything except taxes, and first mortgage payments are current. Does this stop them from foreclosing? I'd really like to get this over with.
Can anyone explain this process to me?
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