To whom ever may read this. I am in need of some help. I have recently been made aware that I still own a portion of land that was to be included in a foreclosure done by Ameriquest Mortgage but serviced by HomEq Servicing. Back in 2006 I was advised that Ameriquest was foreclosing on my home even though I had been making payments every month. I attempted to fight then but could not get an attorney to take the case.
The house set on 3/4 of an acre, which included the house and imediate back yard and an addition lot that another house could have been built on. When it was foreclosed on they took the whole 3/4 of an acre and the house in the foreclosure.
About a month ago I received a letter from the tax office saying that taxes from 2006 to present day were due on the extra lot, and that I am still listed as the owner of said lot.
In doing some research I have discovered that when the house was "sold" at auction a new deed was not issued for the buyer. The house has been bought and sold 5 times since 2006 and all other sales show a deed number but that very first one shows no deed.
What I need to know before I contact an attorney is if the house and all land, including the extra lot, was foreclosed on how am I still the owner of the extra lot? And since there is no deed listed for that first sale was the house legally sold, or could I possibly still be the owner of the house as well?
If anyone out there has any input or had a similar situation please feel free to respond. I need all the help I can get.
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